NCLEX Practice Question: Stevens Johnson syndrome with Rationale
A 36 year old female who developed Stevens Johnson syndrome during treatment with carbamazepine (Tegretol) is being transferred in stable condition from the (ICU) intensive care unit to the medical unit of hospital. in medical unit there are four beds available for patients. at this stage nurse knows the best choice of roommates for this patient is which of the following???
- A. A 40-year-old man with (MRSA)methicillinresistant Staphylococcus aureus
- B. A 72-year-old man with fever of unknown origin
- C. A 28-year-old woman diagnosed with diarrhea
- D. A 68-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation
Answer & Rationale
- D.A 68-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation
The correct answer of above questions is D. because a patient Stevens-Johnson syndrome is likely to have severe skin integrity issues, including blistering and skin shedding, which can place the client at high risk for infection. Atrial fibrillation is not an infectious process.